If Jesus is the real Messiah, would you not htink that the Old Testament would be more up-front about it. And all the “proofs” that are brought by christians, are fool prrof;
1. Virgin birth, Christians say comes from Isiah 7:14, refers to Jesus, Jewish response to this,
a. The hebrew word from Alma means young woman, and not Virgin as misstrabselated buy Christians,
b. where do we find that Jesus is refered to as Emmauel,
c. what sort of sign is a virgin birth, dis he walk around with placard saying that he was from a virgin birth (defenition of sign is something that one can poin wiht a finger, that this indeed a sign, like a street sgin, it tells you something about where you are),
d. in context ot does not make sence that it is talking about Jesus, G-D is telling the Jewish peopel that they will win the war and G-D gives himn a sign and this is the sign (Isiah 7:14) “Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. (The literal translation of the original Hebrew words reads: “Therefore shall-give my-lord he [himself] to you sign behold the-young-woman conceived (is pregnant) and-beareth son and- calleth name-his immanuel.”)”. King Ahaz was at the time of the first tempel, about 500 year before Jesus. What sort of sign is it to KIng Ahaz that they will the war, when the sign will only come 500 years later.
1. Psalms 22:16 This verse, which is Psalm 22:17 in the Hebrew verse numbering, reads ???? ??? ????? (”like a lion my hands and my feet”) in the Masoretic Text. The Septuagint has ?????? ?????? ??? ??? ????? (”they have dug my hands and feet”). Among Christian interpreters, ‘dig’ was understood in the sense of ‘pierced’, and this the rendering in the Syriac. THe Christian bible have taken the word Koarie (like a lion) and transalated it as peirced. With the mistransalation it has a Christiological meaning.
There are other question, but leave it at that.
My point is only a Jew, someone who understands the origonal language that the bible was written, can tell you what it means.
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Firstly, just to correct 'devoted': you are not Torah observant. You don't understand Torah or you would *know* it states: G-D IS NOT A MAN.
Torah states this, over, and over, and over again. Crystal clear.
To correct other incorrect answers:
No, Jesus was not from the house of David. Xianity itself states that Joseph was not his biological father! Thus, Jesus was not related to David. And NO – adoption does not change that. And NO – you can't claim lineage via Mary, because in Judaism TRIBAL LINEAGE has *always* passed VIA THE FATHER.
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TO CORRECT 'SCOTGIRL'
Please get your facts right.
Only the Torah part of the Septuagint was translated by Jews. This fact is acknowledged by ALL Xian scholars.
And years after the Septuagint was completed, the ENTIRE thing was REVISED by Xians, and became a purely XIAN text. It has nothing to do with Judaism.
For a great article on this: http://www.outreachjudaism.org/
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It is a simple statement of FACT: Jesus was not the Jewish maschiach.
Not up for debate.
If some Xians take issue with that – TOUGH.
Only someone who fulfills ALL 23 Jewish prophecies *before* he dies, is OUR maschiach, as detailed in OUR scriptures.
Xians don't get to tell JEWS who the JEWISH messiah is or is not.